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implement automatic interlinear for strong-versions #12

@chriswep

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@chriswep

@david Instone-Brewer you mentioned in private chat that we can be sure that in any translation the order of instances of the same strong would be the same as in the original. i'm still not convinced by this - but since you are the pro i give it the benefit of the doubt: if we work with that assumption i wonder if we can go a different route altogether concerning morphology and strongs. what about having one original version as the only source of truth (which would be compiled of TANTT + TOTHT)? Doing that we wouldn't need to save morphology with the version and we wouldn't need to save a strongs-index with the version. If we would then update the original it automatically update all translations that have strongs.

David Instone-Brewer [3 months ago]
@chris Metz Perhaps I should add a few caveats about assertion that we can assume the same order in text and translation.
I'm referring to words with the same Strongs number in a text and in its translation.
So, if a verse uses the same word twice, we'd expect the translation to use them in the same order as the text. For a silly example: "He said to Jesus, 'Lord Jesus, help me'"
Now, a translation COULD have "'Lord Jesus, help me', he said to Jesus." but it would be strange. And this is an extreme example, where the two words are very close to each other, in phrases that could be swapped round.
BUT I haven't tested this idea, so I don't know how well it works in practice.
So I too am allowing it the benefit of the doubt - though I think it is a fair bet.
The big exception is when there is a variant - when part of a verse is missing in some MSS. This DOES result in some identical words getting mixed up - though in practice this only affects words such as "the" and "his" - ie words are likely to occur frequently in a single verse.
This means it is fairly important to identify the Greek text behind a translation. This kind of problem doesn't occur in the Hebrew OT.

David Instone-Brewer [3 months ago]
I do like your idea of having a single OT+NT text, but there are some BIG problems wrt morphology, because of variants. THe NT texts not only have different wording, but very often different morphology for the same words.

Dan Bennett [3 months ago]
Oooh, tricky

Chris Metz [3 months ago]
I see. I had a longer look at the TANTT dataset. If we take the list of strongs in a translation for a given verse we should be able to infer the type of text that was used using the information in the dataset right? Can we assume that a translation follows only one text type within a verse? I think i came across and example when they didn’t.. though I’m not sure.

David Instone-Brewer [3 months ago]
Bibles tend to fall into two camps: those that use the so-called Textus Receptus (ie the best text available to the KJV translators) and those that follow modern texts (ie NA, SBLGNT or THGNT which all more-or-less agree about the original text). Translations also take some extra decisions about whether to include things like the end of Mark and the forgiven adulteress in John 8. A few perversely use the modern texts but also fill in the so-called 'missing verses' which were duplications in older MSS.
So it would be fairly easy to construct some rules to figure out which of these options a translation was using.

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